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NEW QUESTION # 56
In Strategic Modeling, you set up the Change in Inventory due to Non-Cash Activity account and provide more detailed accounts below that account. The account number is v2040.35:010. The main account is 2040.
Which two statements about setting up accounts in Strategic Modeling are true?
- A. Subaccounts inherit attributes of main accounts in both historical and forecast periods.
- B. You can add siblings to main accounts to create additional accounts.
- C. When you create subaccounts for Balance Sheet accounts, subaccounts for related accounts are created automatically.
- D. You can remove account 2040 if you no longer need it.
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 57
In which two ways can you affect the promotional path of an approval unit hierarchy?
- A. Use data rules to determine whether a change in the approval unit promotional paths is necessary.
- B. Use the Approval Audit feature to view the data tasks performed by users and freeze those tasks for the user.
- C. Create a task list with a task skip a user in the promotional path.
- D. Modify owners and reviewers for approval units and their descendants.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which three application types can you create and edit Groovy Rules?
- A. Module (Enterprise)
- B. Hybrid
- C. Reports
- D. Custom
- E. FreeForm
Answer: A,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 59
In Workforce, you want to set a date by which existing employees must be hired to be eligible to receive merit. You also want to specify the month in which merit should start.
Which option should you enable for this?
- A. Merit Assumptions
- B. Merit Month
- C. Workforce Assumptions
- D. Merit Rates
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation's Workforce module, configuring merit-related settings for employees involves specifying eligibility criteria and timing, such as a hire date cutoff for existing employees to receive merit increases and the month when merit adjustments begin. The Merit Assumptions option is the correct choice for this purpose.
* B. Merit Assumptions: This feature allows administrators to define merit-related parameters, including the "hire by" date (the date by which employees must be hired to be eligible for merit) and the "merit start month" (the month when merit increases take effect). It provides a centralized way to set these assumptions, ensuring they are applied consistently across the workforce plan.
* A. Workforce Assumptions: This option covers broader workforce settings (e.g., default hire dates, salary assumptions), but it does not specifically address merit eligibility or timing details like hire-by dates or merit start months.
* C. Merit Rates: This pertains to defining the percentage or amount of merit increases, not the eligibility dates or start month for merit application.
* D. Merit Month: While this might seem relevant, "Merit Month" is not a standalone option in Workforce. It is a setting typically configured within Merit Assumptions, not an independent feature.
The Merit Assumptions option is explicitly designed to handle these merit-specific configurations, making it the most suitable choice.
References
* Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "Administering Workforce - Merit Assumptions" (docs.oracle.com, updated 2024). States that "Merit Assumptions allow setting the hire- by date for merit eligibility and the merit start month."
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Confirms that Merit Assumptions is used to specify eligibility criteria and timing for merit increases in Workforce.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which four job types can be scheduled in Planning?
- A. Promote Planning Unit
- B. Refresh Database
- C. Import Data and Export Data
- D. Data map
- E. Merge Data Slices
- F. Create Snapshot
Answer: B,C,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which Mass Update form in Workforce allows you to update employee properties, job properties, or salary- related information?
- A. Synchronize Defaults
- B. Process Data and Synchronize Defaults
- C. Process Updated Data
- D. Synchronize Definitions
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Oracle Planning 2024 Workforce module, the Synchronize Definitions Mass Update form is the tool provided to update employee properties, job properties, or salary-related information in bulk. This form allows administrators to modify and synchronize metadata definitions across multiple employees or jobs efficiently, ensuring consistency in workforce planning data.
* D. Synchronize Definitions: This form enables updates to employee properties (e.g., status, department), job properties (e.g., job code, title), and salary-related information (e.g., salary basis, grade). It is designed to handle mass updates to metadata and ensure that changes are reflected across the Workforce model.
* A. Synchronize Defaults: This option is related to applying default assumptions or settings to data, not specifically for updating employee, job, or salary properties.
* B. Process Updated Data: This form focuses on processing data changes (e.g., recalculating costs after data entry), not on updating properties or definitions.
* C. Process Data and Synchronize Defaults: This is a combined action that processes data and applies defaults, but it does not specifically target updates to employee properties, job properties, or salary information.
The Synchronize Definitions form stands out as the correct choice because it directly addresses bulk updates to workforce metadata, aligning with the question's focus on properties and salary-related information.
References
* Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "Managing Workforce - Mass Update Forms" (docs.oracle.com, updated 2024). Describes the "Synchronize Definitions" form as the tool for updating "employee properties, job properties, and salary-related information."
* Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Confirms that "Synchronize Definitions" is the Mass Update form for modifying workforce metadata.
NEW QUESTION # 62
In which two ways do parent/child relationships between approval unit hierarchy members affect the review process?
- A. After all children are promoted to the same owner, the parent status is changed to Signed Off.
- B. After all children are promoted to the same owner, the parent is promoted to the owner.
- C. When you approve a parent. Its children are Signed Off.
- D. When the status of all children changes to one status (for example. Signed Off) the parent status changes to the same status.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, the approval process uses an approval unit hierarchy where parent and child relationships influence the review workflow. The two ways these relationships affect the process are:
* A. When the status of all children changes to one status (for example, Signed Off), the parent status changes to the same status: Correct. In a bottom-up approval process, when all child approval units reach a uniform status (e.g., Signed Off, Approved), the parent's status automatically updates to match, reflecting the completion of the children's review.
* B. When you approve a parent, its children are Signed Off: Incorrect. Approving a parent does not automatically sign off its children; the workflow typically moves bottom-up, requiring children to be approved first.
* C. After all children are promoted to the same owner, the parent status is changed to Signed Off:
Incorrect. Promotion to an owner changes ownership, not necessarily status (e.g., Signed Off). Status changes are driven by approval actions, not just ownership.
* D. After all children are promoted to the same owner, the parent is promoted to the owner: Correct. In the approval hierarchy, once all child units are promoted to a new owner (e.g., for review), the parent unit is also promoted to that owner, ensuring the hierarchy progresses together.
The Oracle documentation confirms that A (status aggregation) and D (owner promotion) are key behaviors of parent/child relationships in the approval process, making them the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Approval Unit Hierarchies" (docs.oracle.com, Published
2024-09-25).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Managing Approvals" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-20, updated for 2024).
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which configuration task is NOT mandatory in Workforce?
- A. Planning and Forecast Preparation
- B. Benefits and Taxes
- C. Workforce Assumptions
- D. Employee Type
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Workforce module, certain configuration tasks are mandatory to enable basic functionality, while others are optional depending on the organization's needs. The task that is not mandatory is:
* A. Employee Type: Incorrect. Defining Employee Type (e.g., full-time, part-time) is mandatory because it establishes the categories of employees to be planned, forming the foundation of workforce data.
* B. Planning and Forecast Preparation: Incorrect. This task is mandatory as it sets up the planning periods, scenarios, and versions, which are essential for Workforce to function within the broader Planning application.
* C. Benefits and Taxes: Correct. Configuring Benefits and Taxes is optional. While Workforce provides predefined options to calculate benefits (e.g., health insurance) and taxes (e.g., payroll taxes), organizations can choose not to configure these if they do not need detailed compensation planning beyond salaries.
* D. Workforce Assumptions: Incorrect. Workforce Assumptions (e.g., hiring rates, salary increases) are mandatory to drive calculations and populate employee data over time.
The Oracle documentation specifies that while Benefits and Taxes enhance Workforce planning, they are not required for core functionality, making C the non-mandatory task.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Configuring Workforce Module" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-01).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Workforce Configuration Tasks" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-
20, updated for 2024).
NEW QUESTION # 64
As an Identify domain administrator, you can manage users in Oracle Identity Management and assign predefined roles to users while creating them. When a user has access to Cloud EPM Planning, Service Administrators can grant roles to many users at the same time. Which two statements are true about user and group security?
- A. Access control lists predefined roles as groups.
- B. Assigning roles at the business process level can only enhance the access rights of users.
- C. Service users and groups cannot be members of groups maintained in Access Control.
- D. Assigning roles at the business process level can reduce the access rights of users.
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 65
You want to associate events with a prediction. Which two statements about configuring insights with events are true?
- A. If you have configured events, they are included by default for the IPM insights job you schedule.
- B. When you set up events, they are automatically included in prediction calculations.
- C. For an event that regularly repeats but doesn't occur at exactly the same time each year, you can specify an exact date.
- D. You can define an event but choose to not include data from that event in the prediction.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 66
You want to Input data into Financials. For Financials, there is a predefined navigation flow with cards listed for both Revenue and Expenses. What is the sequence of the cards for Revenue and Expenses?
- A. Overview, Assumptions, Allocations, Detailed Bottom-Up, Driver and/or Trend based. Direct Input
- B. Overview, Driver and Trend Based, Rolling Forecast, Direct Entry, Income Statement
- C. Assumptions, Direct Input, Driver and/or Trend Based, High Level Overview, Detailed Overview, Summary
- D. Assumptions, Allocations, Detailed Bottom Up, Strategic Top-Down, Direct Input, Overview, Summary
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, Financials provides a predefined navigation flow for entering data, organized into cards that guide users through the planning process for Revenue and Expenses. The navigation flow is designed to streamline data input and analysis, starting with high-level views and moving into detailed entry methods. According to the Oracle documentation, the default sequence of cards for Revenue and Expenses in Financials is: Overview, followed by Driver and Trend Based, Rolling Forecast, Direct Entry, and concluding with Income Statement.
* Overview: Provides a high-level summary of financial data, setting the context for planning.
* Driver and Trend Based: Allows users to input data based on drivers (e.g., units sold) or trends (e.g., historical patterns), a key method for revenue and expense planning.
* Rolling Forecast: Enables continuous forecasting over a defined period, integrating with driver-based inputs.
* Direct Entry: Permits manual data input for specific accounts or line items, offering flexibility.
* Income Statement: Consolidates all inputs into a financial statement view for review.
Option A accurately reflects this sequence as outlined in the Oracle Planning 2024 predefined navigation flow for Financials. Option B includes irrelevant cards like "Allocations" and "Strategic Top-Down," which are not part of the default Financials Revenue and Expenses flow. Option C introduces "High Level Overview" and
"Detailed Overview," which are not standard card names in this context. Option D includes "Allocations" and
"Detailed Bottom-Up," which are more aligned with custom flows or other modules, not the default Financials sequence.
This sequence is part of the out-of-the-box Financials navigation flow, ensuring users follow a logical progression from overview to detailed input and final reporting.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Working with Navigation Flows in Financials" (docs.
oracle.com, Published 2024-09-10).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Planning Revenue and Expenses in Financials" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-15, updated for 2024).
NEW QUESTION # 67
You want to create a dashboard to provide an overview at the beginning of the planning and forecasting process. You create a dashboard with Dashboard 1.0. Which three statements are true about Dashboard 1.0?
- A. You can switch easily between using the design environment and the runtime environment.
- B. You can use a logarithmic scale in relevant chart types.
- C. You can include multiple forms that dynamically update, including their associated charts.
- D. You can add hierarchical labels in charts.
- E. You can include user variables in the global PV bar and the local POV.
Answer: A,C,E
NEW QUESTION # 68
You want to design a report with Reports for Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud. You have an error on the report indicated by a red bar above the report header.
Which two statements describe possible causes of report object errors in Report Designer?
- A. The report object overlaps with another report object.
- B. The report name is blank when you use a text function to display the name.
- C. The data source connection for the report is no longer valid.
- D. The size of the inserted graphic is too large.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
When designing a report in Reports for Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud and encountering an error (indicated by a red bar above the report header), the issue often stems from report object configuration. The two possible causes are:
* A. The report name is blank when you use a text function to display the name: Incorrect. A blank report name might cause display issues, but it's not a common cause of a report object error flagged by a red bar-errors typically relate to objects or data sources, not naming.
* B. The report object overlaps with another report object: Correct. Overlapping objects (e.g., grids, charts) can cause rendering or validation errors in Report Designer, triggering an error indicator like a red bar due to layout conflicts.
* C. The data source connection for the report is no longer valid: Correct. If the data source (e.g., a cube or grid definition) becomes invalid (e.g., deleted, renamed, or inaccessible), the report cannot retrieve data, resulting in an error marked by a red bar.
* D. The size of the inserted graphic is too large: Incorrect. While large graphics might affect performance or formatting, they do not typically cause a report object error flagged by a red bar-size issues are more likely to impact display than functionality.
The Oracle documentation identifies B (object overlap) and C (invalid data source) as frequent causes of errors in Report Designer, making them the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Troubleshooting Reports in Report Designer" (docs.
oracle.com, Published 2024-10-20).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Report Designer Error Handling" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-
25, updated for 2024).
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which two statements describe types of insights that can be configured?
- A. Either user a prebuilt forecasting method or a freeform formula that you build
- B. Detected outliner values that vary widely from other values
- C. Assign a range of possible value to inputs that are uncertain and analyze how that uncertainly affects related accounts
- D. Revel hidden bias in forecast submitted by planners by analyzing historical data
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION # 70
You want to customize the business process interface. Which Planning feature enables you to customize the vertical and horizontal tabs that are displayed on a card?
- A. Configure
- B. Infolets
- C. Navigation flows
- D. Valid intersections
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 71
With Machine Learning, which type of prediction would you define to predict using the same dimension, measure, and slice of data?
- A. Source Prediction
- B. Forecast Prediction
- C. Dimension Prediction
- D. Univariate Prediction
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 72
You want to track budgets and review status, process issues, and approval unit ownership. Which two statements are true about approval unit hierarchies?
- A. You set up separate approval unit hierarchies for the budget scenario and the forecast scenario.
- B. The Approval path is dependent on the organizational structure.
- C. You can select an Approvals template of Hierarchy, Top Down, or Custom.
- D. You can set up approvals to use secondary dimension.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 73
You want to analyze past data and predicted data to help you find patterns and insights into data that you might not have found on your own. To accomplish this, you configure Insights with Auto Predict.
Which two are Oracle EPM guidelines for implementing Insights and Auto Predict?
- A. For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions.
- B. For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used.
- C. For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data.
- D. For historical data, there should be at least twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, configuring Insights with Auto Predict allows users to analyze past and predicted data to uncover patterns and insights. Oracle provides specific guidelines to ensure effective implementation:
* A. For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions:
Incorrect. While templates can be used to set up Insights, this is not a specific Oracle guideline for implementing Auto Predict. Auto Predict relies on historical data and predictive algorithms, not predefined insight templates for future data.
* B. For historical data, there should be at least twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods: Correct. Oracle recommends having sufficient historical data-specifically, at least twice the number of periods you intend to predict-to ensure the accuracy of Auto Predict's machine learning algorithms. For example, predicting 12 months requires at least 24 months of historical data.
* C. For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used: Incorrect. While granularity matters, Oracle does not mandate using the lowest level of Period members (e.g., days instead of months) as a guideline. The focus is on the quantity of historical data, not necessarily the lowest level of aggregation.
* D. For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data: Correct. Oracle advises testing Auto Predict in a non-production environment to validate results and avoid unintended impacts on live data, aligning with best practices for predictive analytics deployment.
The two guidelines-B and D-are explicitly outlined in Oracle's documentation for Insights and Auto Predict to ensure reliable predictions and safe implementation.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Configuring Insights and Auto Predict" (docs.oracle.
com, Published 2024-10-15).
NEW QUESTION # 74
You need to schedule a weekly data import job. Which two statements are true about scheduling jobs?
- A. You can schedule an Import Data job to run later at intervals.
- B. You can delete that are currently processing.
- C. You can set to receive notifications when the job has completed.
- D. You can check the execution status of a job only if it completed.
- E. You can set the daily maintenance time when scheduling cloning environment jobs.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, scheduling jobs such as a weekly data import is managed through the Jobs interface, which provides options for automation, monitoring, and notifications. Let's evaluate the provided statements to identify the two that are true:
* A. You can check the execution status of a job only if it completed: This is false. The Jobs console in Oracle EPM allows users to check the status of a job (e.g., Running, Completed, Failed) at any time, not just after completion. Real-time monitoring is a key feature.
* B. You can set the daily maintenance time when scheduling cloning environment jobs: This is false.
Daily maintenance time is a system-wide setting controlled by administrators via Application Settings, not something adjustable when scheduling specific jobs like cloning or data imports.
* C. You can set to receive notifications when the job has completed: This is true. When scheduling a job (e.g., Import Data), users can enable email notifications to be alerted upon job completion, success, or failure, enhancing job management.
* D. You can schedule an Import Data job to run later at intervals: This is true. The scheduling feature supports recurring jobs, such as weekly data imports, allowing users to define the start time and frequency (e.g., daily, weekly) for tasks like importing data from external sources.
* E. You can delete that are currently processing: This is false. Jobs that are currently processing (i.e., in a "Running" state) cannot be deleted until they complete or fail, as per Oracle's job management rules.
Thus, the two true statements are C and D, reflecting the flexibility of scheduling recurring Import Data jobs and receiving completion notifications, both of which are explicitly supported in Oracle Planning 2024.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Managing Jobs and Scheduling" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-08-22).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Scheduling Jobs in Planning" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-10, updated for 2024).
Oracle Planning Administration Guide: "Monitoring and Notifications" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-
01).
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which three tasks can you perform on the Dimensions page to manage dimensions in a Custom Planning application?
- A. Delete dimensions.
- B. Select the dimension density.
- C. Clear dimension members.
- D. Set the Evaluation Order.
- E. Set the order of precedence.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, the Dimensions page in a Custom Planning application allows administrators to manage dimensions. The three tasks you can perform are:
* A. Set the order of precedence: Correct. This task adjusts the display order of dimensions in forms and reports, enhancing usability, and is manageable on the Dimensions page.
* B. Delete dimensions: Correct. Administrators can delete custom dimensions from the application on the Dimensions page, provided they are not in use (e.g., no data or dependencies).
* C. Clear dimension members: Incorrect. Clearing members (e.g., removing all members from a dimension) is not a task performed on the Dimensions page; it's typically done via metadata import with the "Clear Members" option or manual member deletion.
* D. Select the dimension density: Incorrect. Dimension density (sparse/dense) is set during cube creation or in Cube Designer, not adjustable on the Dimensions page post-creation.
* E. Set the Evaluation Order: Correct. This task defines the order in which dimensions are evaluated for calculations (e.g., resolving member formulas), configurable on the Dimensions page for custom applications.
The Oracle documentation confirms that A, B, and E are tasks supported on the Dimensions page for Custom Planning applications, making them the correct answers.
References:
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Managing Dimensions in Custom Applications" (docs.
oracle.com, Published 2024-10-10).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Dimensions Page Tasks" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-15, updated for 2024).
NEW QUESTION # 76
From which two locations can you export data files?
- A. Outbox
- B. Workspace
- C. Repository
- D. Local
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 77
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