Online 300-745 Test Brain Dump Question and Test Engine
Real Cisco 300-745 Exam Dumps with Correct 73 Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 11
Which tool must be used to prioritize incidents by a SOC?
- A. SIEM
- B. endpoint detection and response
- C. endpoint protection platform
- D. CloudWatch
Answer: A
Explanation:
A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) tool collects and correlates security logs from across the enterprise, then applies analytics to prioritize incidents for SOC analysts. This enables efficient detection and response to the most critical threats.
NEW QUESTION # 12
A global hotel chain is using Cisco ISE and Cisco switches to manage the network. The hotel company wants to enhance network security by segmenting users and endpoints. The company must ensure that devices within the same VLAN cannot communicate with each other. The goal is to prevent cross-communication without the use of dynamic access control lists. Which action must be taken using Cisco ISE to meet the requirement?
- A. Configure TrustSec.
- B. Implement device posturing.
- C. Enable identity groups.
- D. Set up endpoint profiling.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco TrustSec is a next-generation security architecture that provides software-defined segmentation to simplify the provisioning of network access control. In a hotel environment where guest privacy is paramount, TrustSec is the ideal solution to prevent "peer-to-peer" or cross-communication between devices located within the same VLAN. Traditional methods for this isolation, such as Private VLANs (PVLANs) or complex, manually managed Access Control Lists (ACLs), can be extremely difficult to maintain at scale across a global infrastructure.
TrustSec replaces these IP-based or VLAN-based restrictions with Scalable Group Tags (SGTs). When a device connects to the network, Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) authenticates the endpoint and assigns it a specific SGT based on its role, identity, or security posture. The network infrastructure (switches) then enforces policy based on these tags. To meet the requirement of preventing communication between devices in the same VLAN without using dynamic ACLs (dACLs), ISE can be configured to assign the same SGT to guest devices and then apply a Security Group ACL (SGACL) that denies traffic where both the source and destination tags are identical. This "intra-SGT" isolation effectively blocks devices from communicating with their neighbors on the same local segment. This approach aligns with the Cisco SAFE architecture by providing granular, identity-aware segmentation that is topology-independent, allowing the hotel chain to maintain a simplified network structure while ensuring robust client security.
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NEW QUESTION # 13
A software development company relies on GitHub for managing the source code and is committed to maintaining application security. The company must ensure that known software vulnerabilities are not introduced to the application. The company needs a capability within GitHub that can analyze semantic versioning and flag any software components that pose security risks. Which GitHub feature must be used?
- A. Sealed boxes
- B. Depend-a-bot
- C. Artifact attestations
- D. GitHub Actions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dependabot is a GitHub feature that automatically scans project dependencies, analyzes semantic versioning, and flags or updates components with known vulnerabilities. This prevents insecure software libraries from being introduced into the application.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A company recently discovered that a former employee, who left to join a competitor, continued to access and exfiltrate sensitive data over several weeks after leaving. The breach highlighted vulnerabilities in the organization's data security and access management practices. To prevent such incidents in the future, the organization must adopt measures that detect and restrict unauthorized data access and transfer. Which mitigation strategy must be implemented to address the issue?
- A. Implement web application firewall.
- B. Deploy audit logging and monitoring solution.
- C. Upgrade network policy access.
- D. Implement data loss prevention strategy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario describes a typical "insider threat" involvingdata exfiltration. While the initial failure was likely in the off-boarding process (Identity Management), the technical control required to specifically "detect and restrict unauthorized data access and transfer" is aData Loss Prevention (DLP) strategy. DLP solutions are designed to monitor, detect, and block sensitive data from leaving the organization's control.
A robust DLP strategy-integrated across Cisco platforms likeEmail Security (ESA),Web Security (WSA), andCisco Umbrella-works by identifying sensitive content (such as customer lists, proprietary code, or financial data) using techniques like fingerprinting or keyword matching. If an unauthorized attempt is made to upload this data to a personal cloud drive or send it via email, the DLP engine intercepts and blocks the transfer. WhileAudit Logging(Option D) is essential for forensic investigationafterthe fact, it does not
"restrict" the transfer in real-time.WAFs(Option A) protect against external attacks on web servers, and Network Policies(Option B) control traffic flow but generally lack the content-awareness required to identify sensitive business data. Implementing DLP ensures that the organization's intellectual property remains protected even if an account remains active or a user has legitimate network access.
NEW QUESTION # 15
An IT company experienced the spread of malicious content between user endpoints, which impacted business critical resources. The company wants to implement a solution to control communication between individual endpoints on the network. Which approach achieves the goal?
- A. posture
- B. profiling
- C. RADIUS
- D. TrustSec
Answer: D
Explanation:
The spread of malicious content between endpoints is a classic case oflateral movement. To control and restrict communication between individual endpoints-regardless of their physical location or IP address- Cisco TrustSecis the recommended architectural approach. TrustSec moves away from traditional, IP-based Access Control Lists (ACLs), which are difficult to manage and scale, and instead usesScalable Group Tags (SGTs).
With TrustSec, every endpoint is assigned an SGT based on its role or security context (e.g., "Employee,"
"Contractor," or "HR"). Security policies are then defined in a centralized matrix (the egress policy matrix) that dictates which SGTs can talk to one another. For example, a policy can be set so that endpoints in the
"Developer" group cannot communicate directly with endpoints in the "Sales" group, effectively preventing malware from hopping between machines. WhileRADIUS(Option A) is the protocol used for authentication, it does not perform the segmentation itself.Posture(Option C) checks the health of the device, andProfiling (Option D) identifies what the device is, but neither provides the policy-based traffic control of TrustSec. By implementing TrustSec, the company achievesmicro-segmentation, significantly reducing the internal attack surface and containing potential breaches within a single group, which is a core goal of modern secure infrastructure design.
NEW QUESTION # 16
A company recently discovered that a former employee, who left to join a competitor, continued to access and exfiltrate sensitive data over several weeks after leaving. The breach highlighted vulnerabilities in the organization's data security and access management practices. To prevent such incidents in the future, the organization must adopt measures that detect and restrict unauthorized data access and transfer. Which mitigation strategy must be implemented to address the issue?
- A. Implement web application firewall.
- B. Deploy audit logging and monitoring solution.
- C. Upgrade network policy access.
- D. Implement data loss prevention strategy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Data Loss Prevention (DLP) strategy directly addresses the problem of unauthorized access and exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP tools monitor, detect, and block suspicious data transfers, ensuring that insiders or former employees cannot copy, email, or upload sensitive information without authorization. This provides the required prevention and control that the scenario calls for.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A healthcare organization in the United States recently discovered that a highly confidential report name Records ______ that includes patient records name Patient_Medical_Records _____ was accessed by unauthorized personnel internally. The breach occurred due to lack of protection measures in place for patient electronic medical records. Which regulatory compliance is directly appropriate and must be adopted?
- A. HIPAA
- B. PCI DSS
- C. FERPA
- D. FISMA
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is the U.S. regulation that governs the protection of patient medical records and electronic health information. Since the breach involved unauthorized access to patient medical records, HIPAA compliance is directly required.
NEW QUESTION # 18
A restaurant distribution center recently suffered a password spray attack targeting the Cisco Secure Firepower Threat Defense VPN headend. The attack attempts to gain unauthorized access by trying common passwords across many accounts. The attack poses a significant security threat to the organization's remote access infrastructure. To enhance the security of the VPN setup and minimize the risk of similar attacks in the future, the IT security team must implement effective mitigation measures. Which technique effectively reduces the risk of this type of attack?
- A. Implement an access list to block addresses from the previous password spray attack.
- B. Disable group aliases in the connection profiles.
- C. Enable AAA authentication for the DefaultWEBVPN and DefaultRAGroup Connection Profiles.
- D. Change the AAA authentication method from RADIUS to TACACS+.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of Designing Cisco Security Infrastructure, protecting Remote Access VPN (RAVPN) against brute-force and password spray attacks is a critical objective. On Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) and Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) platforms, theDefaultWEBVPNGroupandDefaultRAGroupare the landing points for any connection request that does not specify a valid Group Alias or Group URL. Attackers frequently target these default profiles because they are often left with "None" as the authentication method, allowing the attacker to probe for valid usernames without immediate rejection.
By selectingOption D, the security designer ensures that any attempt to access the VPN via these default profiles requires valid AAA credentials. According to Cisco's hardened design guides, it is best practice to point these default profiles to a "sinkhole" AAA server or a local database with no users. This forces the password spray attack to fail at the initial authentication phase before any sensitive information is leaked or unauthorized access is granted. While Option A (ACLs) provides a temporary fix, it is ineffective against distributed attacks using rotating IP addresses. Option B (Disabling aliases) is a good obfuscation technique but doesn't stop an attacker from hitting the default profile. Option D provides a structural mitigation that aligns with theCisco SAFEarchitectural principle of reducing the attack surface by securing every possible entry vector into the private infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A security engineer on an application design team must choose a framework of attack patterns to evaluate during threat modeling. Which framework provides the common set of attacks?
- A. SOC2
- B. MITRE CAPEC
- C. Cisco SAFE
- D. GDPR
Answer: B
Explanation:
MITRE CAPEC (Common Attack Pattern Enumeration and Classification) provides a standardized catalog of attack patterns. It is specifically designed for use in threat modeling and application design, allowing security engineers to anticipate and evaluate common attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Network administrators at a medical facility cannot log in to network devices because of excessive resource consumption and high CPU utilization. The situation has led to delays in routine maintenance and troubleshooting, which affects overall network performance. An engineer must optimize the handling of traffic to reduce the impact and maintain consistent access and operational efficiency. Which approach must be implemented to meet the requirement?
- A. RBAC
- B. SNMP
- C. AAA
- D. Control Plane Policing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Control Plane Policing (CoPP) protects the CPU of network devices by filtering and rate-limiting control plane traffic. This prevents excessive resource consumption, ensures stability, and maintains administrator access for maintenance and troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 21
A company has been facing recurring issues with SQL injection vulnerabilities affecting the products, leading to significant disruptions for customers. To address the security concerns proactively, the company wants to integrate a tool into the CI/CD pipeline. The tool must be capable of identifying vulnerabilities such as SQL injection early in the development process, which allows developers to rectify issues before the code is deployed. Which solution must be implemented to meet the requirement?
- A. Static Application Security Testing tools, such as Checkmarx, Fortify, SonarQube
- B. workflow automation tools, such as GitHub Actions, Azure
- C. build log observability tools, such as Splunk, Datadog
- D. Dynamic Application Security Testing tools, such as OWASP ZAP, Veracode, Burp Suite
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the framework of theDesigning Cisco Security Infrastructure (300-745 SDSI)curriculum, the "Shift- Left" security strategy is fundamental to modern DevSecOps. To identify vulnerabilities like SQL injection at the earliest possible stage-specifically before the code is even compiled or deployed-Static Application Security Testing (SAST)is the required solution. SAST tools analyze the application's source code, byte code, or binaries without actually executing the program.
By integrating SAST tools like Checkmarx or SonarQube into the CI/CD pipeline, the security team can automate the scanning of every code commit or pull request. These tools use sophisticated algorithms to trace data flows and identify dangerous patterns, such as user-controlled input being concatenated directly into SQL queries without proper sanitization or parameterization. This proactive approach allows developers to receive immediate feedback within their native workflow, enabling them to fix security flaws before they progress into later, more expensive stages of the development lifecycle.
In contrast,Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)(Option D) requires a running instance of the application and typically occurs much later in the pipeline, such as during the testing or staging phase. While DAST is excellent for finding runtime vulnerabilities, it does not meet the requirement of identifying issues
"early in the development process" as effectively as SAST.Build log observability tools(Option B) and workflow automation platforms(Option C) provide infrastructure and visibility but do not possess the specialized engine required to perform deep code analysis for application-layer vulnerabilities like SQL injection. Implementing SAST ensures that security is a foundational element of the code-writing phase, aligning with Cisco's vision for a secure, automated software supply chain.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which two controls help detect drift in IaC-managed infrastructure? (Choose two.)
- A. DHCP snooping
- B. Immutable infrastructure patterns
- C. Manual change log entries
- D. Continuous configuration monitoring
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Continuous configuration monitoring detects deviations from IaC definitions, while immutable infrastructure minimizes drift by replacing resources instead of modifying them in place.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which two metrics are important for evaluating the performance of automated security response workflows? (Choose two.)
- A. Mean Time to Respond (MTTR)
- B. VLAN propagation speed
- C. CPU temperature
- D. Mean Time to Detect (MTTD)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
MTTD measures how quickly incidents are detected, and MTTR measures how quickly they are resolved. Together, they indicate the effectiveness of automated security response workflows.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which Cisco product provides automated incident response workflows integrated with SIEM and SOAR platforms?
- A. Cisco Catalyst
- B. Cisco AnyConnect
- C. Cisco SecureX
- D. Cisco DNA Center
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco SecureX integrates multiple security tools with SIEM and SOAR platforms and provides automated incident response workflows to speed up detection, investigation, and remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which tool is used to collect, analyze, and visualize logs from network devices, endpoints, and other sources in an enterprise?
- A. Splunk
- B. Cloud Observability
- C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
- D. Cisco Email Security Appliance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Splunk is a SIEM and log management tool used to collect, analyze, and visualize logs from diverse sources such as network devices, endpoints, and applications. It provides centralized visibility for security monitoring and incident response.
NEW QUESTION # 26
How does a SOC leverage flow collectors?
- A. It provides data for analysis in threat detection and response system.
- B. It provides real-time content filtering.
- C. It performs data backup and recovery.
- D. It performs load balancing capabilities across systems to optimize performance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Aflow collector(such asCisco Secure Network Analytics, formerly Stealthwatch) is a critical tool within a Security Operations Center (SOC) for providing "pervasive visibility" into the network. Instead of capturing every full packet-which is resource-intensive-a flow collector ingests NetFlow or IPFIX data, which contains metadata like source/destination IPs, ports, and the volume of data transferred.
The SOC leverages this data forthreat detection and responseby establishing a baseline of normal network behavior. When a flow collector identifies an anomaly-such as an endpoint suddenly sending gigabytes of data to an unusual external IP (data exfiltration) or scanning internal ports (lateral movement)-it flags the incident for analysis. UnlikeReal-time content filtering(Option D), which happens at the gateway (e.g., Cisco Umbrella or WSA), flow collectors provide a historical record and behavioral analysis ofallinternal and external traffic. They do not performload balancing(Option B) orbackup/recovery(Option A). In the Cisco SDSI framework, flow analysis is essential for identifying the "unknown unknowns" and providing the forensic evidence needed to understand the scope and path of a security breach.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A legal services company wants to prevent remote employees from accessing personal email and social media accounts while using corporate laptops. Which security solution enforces the policy?
- A. network monitoring tool
- B. Cisco TrustSec
- C. RADIUS server
- D. Cisco Umbrella
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Umbrella provides DNS-layer security and content filtering, allowing organizations to block categories such as personal email and social media. This enforces acceptable-use policies for remote employees regardless of where they connect, ensuring corporate devices comply with security requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which tool is used by a SOC analyst to quarantine an endpoint?
- A. flow collector
- B. syslog
- C. load balancer
- D. Cisco XDR
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the event of a confirmed compromise, a SOC analyst must act quickly to prevent lateral movement.Cisco XDR (Extended Detection and Response)is the integrated security platform designed to provide cross- layered detection and automated response actions across the network, endpoint, and cloud. One of the most critical response actions within XDR is the ability toquarantine or isolate an endpoint.
Cisco XDR integrates with endpoint security agents (like Cisco Secure Client) and network infrastructure (like Cisco ISE). From a single interface, an analyst can trigger a "Host Isolation" command. This command instructs the endpoint agent to block all network traffic except for communication with the security console, effectively putting the device in digital quarantine. This is much faster and more effective than manually tracking down the device. Aflow collector(Option A) andsyslog(Option B) are diagnostic tools used for visibility and logging; they cannot take active enforcement actions. Aload balancer(Option C) manages traffic distribution for applications and is irrelevant to endpoint containment. Cisco XDR fulfills the SDSI objective of "Securing Infrastructure through Automation," allowing SOC teams to mitigate threats at scale through coordinated response workflows.
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NEW QUESTION # 29
The network security team of a private university is conducting a comprehensive audit to evaluate the security posture across the network infrastructure. During the review, the security team found that a trusted vendor disclosed serious vulnerabilities identified in a product that plays a crucial role in the university's CI/CD pipeline. The security team must act promptly to mitigate the potential risks posed by these vulnerabilities. Which action must the security team take first in response to the disclosure?
- A. Leverage IDS to measure the impact of the vulnerability.
- B. Confirm impact by validating presence of the product in company's environment
- C. Patch the impacted product as soon as possible
- D. Notify customers of the impact and its source
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step after a vulnerability disclosure is to validate whether the affected product exists in the organization's environment. This ensures the vulnerability is relevant before applying patches or notifying stakeholders, preventing wasted effort and focusing on actual exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 30
How is generative AI used in securing networks?
- A. to perform real-time audits to ensure regulatory compliance
- B. to improve resource consumption
- C. to detect unusual patterns in network traffic
- D. to provide real-time load balancing
Answer: C
Explanation:
The integration ofArtificial Intelligence (AI)andGenerative AI (GenAI)into network security is a pivotal component of theCisco SDSI v1.0blueprint. While traditional security mechanisms rely on deterministic rules and static signatures, GenAI leverages large-scale telemetry data to understand the baseline behavior of a specific network environment. By processing vast amounts of flow logs, packet metadata, and user activity, AI models candetect unusual patterns-often referred to as anomalies-that signify sophisticated threats such as zero-day exploits, lateral movement, or slow-and-low data exfiltration.
In a modern security architecture, GenAI enhances the "Visibility and Monitoring" domain by identifying deviations that would be invisible to human analysts. For instance, if an application suddenly changes its communication frequency or connects to a previously unknown internal segment, the AI can flag this as a potential compromise. Unlike Option A or B, which focus on operational efficiency and performance, or Option C, which is a reporting and compliance function, the use of AI forbehavioral analyticsdirectly strengthens the threat detection lifecycle. Cisco products likeSecure Network Analytics(Stealthwatch) and Cognitive Intelligenceuse these AI capabilities to transition from reactive defense to a proactive posture, reducing the window of opportunity for attackers and aligning with the Cisco SAFE principle of continuous monitoring and pervasive visibility.
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NEW QUESTION # 31
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