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2026 Realistic Verified Free CompTIA CV0-004 Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 123
An administrator is setting up a cloud backup solution that requires the following features:
* Cost effective
* Granular recovery
* Multilocation
Which of the following backup types best meets these requirements?
- A. On-site. full, and incremental
- B. Off-site, full, incremental, and differential
- C. On-site. full, and differential
- D. Cloud site, full, and differential
Answer: B
Explanation:
An off-site cloud backup solution that offers full, incremental, and differential backups would best meet the requirements of being cost-effective, allowing granular recovery, and supporting multi-location storage. This combination allows for comprehensive backup strategies that can be tailored to the company's needs while optimizing storage costs.
Backup strategies, including full, incremental, and differential backups, are an integral part of data management and protection strategies discussed in the CompTIA Cloud+ objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following is a customer be responsible for in a provider-managed database service? (Select two).
- A. Operating system patches
- B. Table-level permissions
- C. Minor database engine updates
- D. Cluster configuration
- E. Availability of hardware for scaling
- F. Row-level encryption
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
In a provider-managed database service, the cloud provider typically manages the infrastructure, operating system, and database engine updates. However, the customer is responsible for the data and its security within the database, which includes setting table-level permissions and row-level encryption to ensure that data access and security is managed appropriately. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Guide to Cloud Computing (ISBN: 978-1-64274-282-2)
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following is true of SSDs?
- A. SSDs are used mostly in cold storage.
- B. SSDs do not have self-encrypting capabilities.
- C. SSDs have small storage capacities.
- D. SSDs can be used for high-IOP applications.
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSDs (Solid State Drives) are known for their high performance and can handle a high number of input/output operations per second (IOPS). This makes them ideal for applications and workloads that require rapid access to storage, such as databases and high-performance computing applications.
NEW QUESTION # 126
A developer is building an application that has multiple microservices that need to communicate with each other. The developer currently manually updates the IP address of each service. Which of the following best resolves the communication issue and automates the process?
- A. DNS
- B. Fan-out
- C. Service discovery
- D. Managed container services
Answer: C
Explanation:
Service discovery is a key component in microservices architectures, allowing services to dynamically discover and communicate with each other. By implementing service discovery, the developer can automate the process of updating service addresses, resolving the communication issue without manual updates to IP addresses, thus ensuring seamless interaction between the microservices.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ resources and microservices architecture principles
NEW QUESTION # 127
A customer relationship management application, which is hosted in a public cloud laaS network, is vulnerable to a remote command execution vulnerability. Which of the following is the best solution for the security engineer to implement to prevent the application from being exploited by basic attacks?
- A. IPS
- B. DLP
- C. WAF
- D. ACL
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is the best solution to implement for a public cloud IaaS hosted customer relationship management application vulnerable to remote command execution attacks. WAFs are designed to monitor, filter, and block malicious HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application to protect against various application layer attacks, including remote command execution. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) - Chapter on Security in the Cloud
NEW QUESTION # 128
A company needs to deploy its own code directly in the cloud without provisioning additional infrastructure.
Which of the following is the best cloud service model for the company to use?
- A. PaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. XaaS
- D. laaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is the best cloud service model for deploying code directly in the cloud without provisioning additional infrastructure. PaaS provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure.References: The PaaS model and its benefits for application deployment are covered under the Cloud Concepts domain in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A cloud solution needs to be replaced without interruptions. The replacement process can be completed in phases, but the cost should be kept as low as possible. Which of the following is the best strategy to implement?
- A. Blue-green
- B. Canary
- C. Rolling
- D. In-place
Answer: C
Explanation:
A rolling strategy is the best to implement when needing to replace a cloud solution without interruptions and keeping costs low. This approach updates or replaces parts of the system gradually with minimal downtime and allows for a phased implementation. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) - Chapter on Cloud Deployment and Provisioning
NEW QUESTION # 130
A cloud engineer wants to deploy a new application to the cloud and is writing the following script:
Which of the following actions will this script perform?
- A. Upload a new VM image.
- B. Import a cloud module.
- C. Create a new cloud resource.
- D. Build a local server.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The script shown is written in Terraform, which is an infrastructure as code (IaC) tool used for building, changing, and versioning infrastructure safely and efficiently. This particular Terraform script specifies a required provider and its version, the Terraform version, sets the cloud provider's region, and then defines a resource for a server instance with a specific AMI ID and instance type. It also includes tags for the instance. The action this script will perform is to create a new cloud resource, specifically a server instance on the cloud provider's platform.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A technician receives an email from a vendor who is requesting payment of an invoice for human resources services. The email contains a request for bank account numbers. Which of the following types of attacks does this behavior most likely indicate?
- A. MaIware
- B. Ransomware
- C. Cryptojacking
- D. Phishing
Answer: D
Explanation:
The behavior described in the question indicates a phishing attack. Phishing typically involves an attacker masquerading as a legitimate entity to trick individuals into providing sensitive information, such as bank account numbers, through seemingly trustworthy communication channels like email.
Understanding security concerns and measures is part of the Governance, Risk, Compliance, and Security domain of the CompTIA Cloud+ objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 132
A cloud engineer is deploying a cloud solution that will be used on premises with need-to-know access. Which of the following cloud deployment models best meets this requirement?
- A. Community
- B. Hybrid
- C. Public
- D. Private
Answer: D
Explanation:
A private cloud deployment model is the most appropriate when the requirement is for 'need-to- know' access, as it offers a more secure environment with resources dedicated to a single organization. It can be hosted on-premises or off-premises but is maintained on a private network, ensuring greater control over the data, security, and compliance when compared to other cloud models.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A company that has several branches worldwide needs to facilitate full access to a specific cloud resource to a branch in Spain. Other branches will have only read access. Which of the following is the best way to grant access to the branch in Spain?
- A. Implement an IPS/IDS to detect unauthorized users.
- B. Apply a rule on the WAF to allow only users in Spain access to the resource.
- C. Create a network security group with required permissions for users in Spain.
- D. Set up MFA for the users working at the branch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to grant full access to a specific cloud resource to a branch in Spain, while other branches have only read access, is to create a network security group with the required permissions. This group can be configured to allow full access to users within the branch's IP range while restricting others to read-only access. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) - Chapter on Security Configuration
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following would help a project manager identify that project goals have been reached?
- A. Lessons learned
- B. Key performance indicators
- C. Audit report
- D. Backlog
Answer: B
Explanation:
KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) are measurable values tied to project goals. If KPIs are being met, the PM can confirm that the project outcomes align with objectives. Audit reports verify compliance, while lessons learned capture knowledge at project closure.
NEW QUESTION # 135
An IT security team wants to ensure that the correct parties are informed when a specific user account is signed in. Which of the following would most likely allow an administrator to address this concern?
- A. Configuring the retention of all sign-in logs
- B. Creating an alert based on user sign-in criteria
- C. Aggregating user sign-in logs from all systems
- D. Enabling the collection of user sign-in logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure that the correct parties are informed when a specific user account is signed in, the best action is to create an alert based on user sign-in criteria. This alert can notify administrators or security personnel when the specified event occurs.References: Security monitoring and alerting are critical components of managing cloud environments securely, as discussed in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
NEW QUESTION # 136
A company requests that its cloud administrator provision virtual desktops for every user. Given the following information:
* One hundred users are at the company.
* A maximum of 30 users work at the same time.
* Users cannot be interrupted while working on the desktop.
Which of the following strategies will reduce costs the most?
- A. Configuring a group of VMs to share with multiple users
- B. Provisioning VMs of varying sizes to match user needs
- C. Setting up the VMs to turn off outside of business hours at night
- D. Using VMs that have spot availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Setting up the VMs to turn off outside of business hours at night will reduce costs the most, especially since a maximum of 30 users work at the same time and users cannot be interrupted while working. This approach ensures that resources are used only when necessary.
Reference: Cost management and efficient resource utilization strategies like scheduling VMs to turn off during idle times are discussed within the financial management aspects of cloud services in the CompTIA Cloud+ exam objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 137
A cross-site request forgery vulnerability exploited a web application that was hosted in a public laaS network. A security engineer determined that deploying a WAF in blocking mode at a CDN would prevent the application from being exploited again. However, a week after implementing the WAF, the application was exploited again. Which of the following should the security engineer do to make the WAF control effective?
- A. Deploy an IDS on the laaS network.
- B. Install endpoint protection software on the VMs
- C. Add an ACL to the VM subnet.
- D. Configure the DDoS protection on the CDN.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After a WAF deployment fails to prevent an exploit, adding an Access Control List (ACL) to the Virtual Machine (VM) subnet can be an effective control. ACLs provide an additional layer of security by explicitly defining which traffic can or cannot enter a network segment. By setting granular rules based on IP addresses, protocols, and ports, ACLs help to restrict access to resources, thereby mitigating potential exploits and enhancing the security of the IaaS network.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ materials cover governance, risk, compliance, and security for the cloud, including the implementation of network security controls like ACLs, to protect cloud environments from unauthorized access and potential security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 138
A log-parsing application requires significant processing power to ingest the logs streaming from web servers. The engineering team presents the cloud architect with four proposals using the same underlying hardware. Which of the following should the cloud architect select in order to minimize the impact of an instance failure while keeping the cost as low as possible?
- A. Two instances of 8vCPU, 16GB RAM, 80GB HDD
- B. Four instances of 4vCPU, 8GB RAM, 80GB HDD
- C. Two instances of 8vCPU, 16GB RAM, 80GB SSD
- D. Four instances of 4vCPU, 8GB RAM, 80GB SSD
Answer: D
Explanation:
Choosing four instances with the given specifications would distribute the load and reduce the impact of any single instance failure. Using SSDs over HDDs would provide faster data processing capabilities which is crucial for a log-parsing application. This setup also retains cost efficiency by not over-provisioning resources.
NEW QUESTION # 139
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